DSSSB PGT Commerce – 2018 – Question Paper Bifurcation

Total No of Questions : 200 (including 20 Question of Pedagogy)

Subjects  Part of Subjects  No. of Questions  Total Questions
Financial Accounting & Financial Statement Analysis
Financial Accounting 23 65

Corporate Accounting 14
Cost Accounting 20
Advance & Miscellaneous Accounting 8
Business Studies & Management

Business Studies 36 115
 
Business Management & Human Resource Management 28
Business Finance 29
Marketing Management 22
 Subject’s Question 180
Pedagogy 20
Total 200

Financial Accounting

  1. Who among the following is considered as the ‘Father of Accounting’?
    (a) Henry Dunant
    (b) Robert Stephenson
    (c) Luca Pacioli
    (d) Elton Mayo
  2. Which one among the following is NOT a subsidiary book in Accounting
    (a) Cash Book
    (b) Sales Book
    (c) Journal Book
    (d) Sales Return Book
  3. Which of the following errors CANNOT be detected through Trial Balance?
    (a) Posting wrong amount
    (b) Treating an expense as an asset
    (c) Posting an amount on the wrong side
    (d) Wrong Totaling
  4. Which of the following transactions may NOT be categorised as ‘error of principle’ as far as Accounting is concerned?
    (a) Treating an income as liability
    (b) Treating a liability as income
    (c) Treating an asset as expense
    (d) Omitting the entire amount to record after transaction
  5. Which of the following Depreciation Accounting policies is usually suitable for mining companies under normal circumstances?
    (a) Annuity Method
    (b) Insurance Policy Method
    (c) Depletion Method
    (d) Written Down Value Method
  6. During an inflationary period————method of material issue would help to ensure that the cost of production determined is approximately the current prevailing price level.
    (a) FIFO
    (b) Specific Price Method
    (c) Base Stock Method
    (d) LIFO
  7. A Secret Reserve can be created through:
    (a) Undervaluation of assets and liabilities
    (b) Undervaluation of current assets and undervaluation of current liabilities
    (c) Over valuation of assets and liabilities
    (d) Over valuation of assets and undervaluation of liabilities
  8. As per————-accounting concept, a business is treated as separate from its owner’s personal affairs.
    (a) Business Entity
    (b) Dual Aspect
    (c) Historical Cost
    d) Perpetual Succession
  9. Which of the following options best explains a Bank Reconciliation Statement?
    (a) It is a part of Cash Book
    (b) It is a separate statement
    (c) It  is a sub-division of a journal entry
    (d) It is a ledger account
  10. Suppose these are two partners A and B.  A  brings Rs.2,00,000 while B brings in Rs.1,00,000 capital for the firm. A is actively involved in the business, while B is not at all contributing to it. The profit and Loss account reveals a profit of Rs.30,000 for the year. How will the profit be distributed among A and B respectively in the absence of a Partnership deed?
    (a) Rs. 30,000 and Rs. 0
    (b) Rs. 10,000 and Rs. 20,000
    (c) Rs. 15,000 and Rs. 15,000
    (d) Rs. 20,000 and Rs. 10,000
  11. What is the person who, without being a real partner, so behaves as to lead others to believe him to be a partner called?
    (a) Partner By Estoppel
    (b) Dormant Partner
    (c) Sub Partner
    (d) Sleeping Partner
  12. Rajan and Sajan started a business on 1st January 2017 with capital of Rs.30,000 and Rs.20,000 respectively. According to the partnership deed, Sajan is entitled to a salary of Rs.500 per month while interest to be allowed on capital is @ 6% for both the partners the remaining profit must be distributed in the ratio of 5:3. After 31st December 2017 the firm earned a gross profit of Rs.25,000. During the year Rajan and Sajan withdrew Rs.8,000 and Rs.10,000 respectively. Calculate the closing balance of Rajan and Sajan respectively assuming profits were credited in their respective capital accounts.
    (a) Rs. 33,000, Rs. 23,200
    (b) Rs. 32,500, Rs. 21,500
    (c) Rs. 31,800, Rs. 22,200
    (d) Rs. 31,600, Rs. 22,400
  13. “Debit all Expenses & Loss, Credit all Gains & Incomes” is a rule that is applicable for:
    (a) Natural Personal Accounts
    (b) Representative Personal Accounts
    (c) Nominal Accounts
    (d) Intangible Real Accounts
  14. Which of the following is treated as per the principles of Nominal Account?
    (a) Bad Debts Recovery Account
    (b) Drawings Account
    (c) Commission Received in Advance
    (d) Bills Payable Account
  15. Accounting for taxes on income is dealt with in :
    (a) Accounting Standard 22
    (b) Accounting Standard 13
    (c) Accounting Standard 20
    (d) Accounting Standard 9
  16. Which treating funds, ———— recognises revenue at the point of sale and expenses when they are incurred
    (a) Realisation Method
    (b) Revenue Generation Method
    (c) Accrual Method
    (d) Recognition Method
  17. Which one of the following is generally NOT a characteristic of a Traditional Accounting System?
    (a) It is historical in nature
    (b) It matches current revenues with historical costs
    (c) It considers inflation
    (d) Profit and Loss account does not consider increase in net asset value
  18. Which of the following is NOT a feature of Bookkeeping?
    (a) A person responsible for bookkeeping is called a Bookkeeper
    (b) It is the recording phase of an accounting system
    (c) Bookkeeping does not require any special skills
    (d) It compiles clerical activities not analytical in nature
  19. Which one of the following is NOT a transaction as per Accounting Principles?
    (a) Mr. X started a business with capital (brought in cash) of Rs.40,000
    (b) Mr. X paid salaries worth Rs.5,000 to staff
    (c) Mr. X purchased machinery worth Rs.20,000 in cash
    (d) Mr. X placed an order with D’Souza & Co. for goods worth Rs.10,000
  20. Find the odd one out with regard to branches of Accounting
    (a) Corporate Accounting
    (b) Management Accounting
    (c) Financial Accounting
    (d) Cost Accounting
  21. The appearance of a contingent liability in the footnote of a company’s balance sheet is a result of ——–accounting principle.
    (a) Conservatism
    (b) Disclosure
    (c) Consistency
    (d) Materiality
  22. The value of assets are usually shown in the balance sheet on the basis of :
    (a) Unexpired Cost Value
    (b) Replacement Cost Value
    (c) Market Value
    (d) Revaluated Cost Value
  23. The Subject matter of Accounting Standard 20 is :
    (a) Accounting for Amalgamation
    (b) Earnings per Share
    (c) Consolidated Balance Sheet of Holding Company
    (d) Employee Stock Option Plan

Corporate Accounting

  1. Which among the following methods is essentially an integrated ratio analysis?
    (a) BCG Matrix Analysis
    (b) Trial Balance Analysis
    (c) DuPont Analysis
    (d) Cash Flow Analysis
  2. ABC Ltd. buys 77% of available shares (ownership) of XYZ Corp. Which of the following can be said about XYZ Corp.?
    (a) It is no longer a company
    (b) It is a holding company
    (c) It is an independent company
    (d) It is a subsidiary company
  3. The excess of Current Asset over Current Liability in typical financial terms is called as:
    (a)  Cash Flow Analysis
    (b) Net Working Capital
    (c) Gross Working Capital
    (d) Current Ratio
  4. Which of the following is NOT a tool for analysing financial statements?
    (a) Trend Analysis
    (b) Profit and Loss Account Statement
    (c) Funds Flow Analysis
    (d) Ratio Analysis
  5. In a———–statement, each account is expressed as a percentage of the value of sales.
    (a) Funds Flow
    (b) Liquidator’s
    (c) Common Size
    (d) Cash Flow
  6. Which of the following statements is correct?
    (a) Merger does not form a part of Amalgamation
    (b) Under no circumstances, Amalgamation leads to liquidation of an existing company
    (c) Amalgamation includes Absorption
    (d) Internal Reconstruction is an integral part of Amalgamation
  7. While preparing a Cash Flow Statement, cash receipts form royalties, fees, commission etc, come under:
    (a) Production activities
    (b) Operating activities
    (c) Financing activities
    (d) Investing activities
  8. Decrease in the working capital is connected with :
    (a) Non-trading expenses
    (b) Application of fund
    (c) Sources of fund
    (d) Non-trading income
  9. India Ltd is a fully government owned company where as Sharma Ltd is a company that is fully managed by a private management. Subsequently, India ltd. took over Sharma Ltd in a hostile takeover by buying 72% shares of Sharma Ltd.
    Select the option which best describes the status of Sharma Ltd. after the takeover.
    (a) Chartered Company
    (b) Government Subsidiary Company
    (c) Holding Company
    (d) Private Limited Company
  10. Acquiring a machinery for long-term use by selling a part of building will results in ———- in a fund flow statement.
    (a) Proportionate increase in the application of funds
    (b) Increase in the source of funds
    (c) No flow of funds
    (d) Increase in the application of funds
  11. The distinction between capital and revenue transactions are necessary for preparation of :
    (a) Cash Flow Statement
    (b) Fund Flow Statement
    (c) Final Account
    (d) Receipt and Payment Account
  12. Which of the following is NOT an element of Cash Flow Statement?
    (a) Operating Activity
    (b) Procuring Activity
    (c) Financing Activity
    (d) Investing Activity
  13. In which of the following accounting process is Deficiency Account exclusively opened?
    (a) Branch and Departmental Accounting
    (b) Insolvency Accounting
    (c) Accounting of Banking Companies
    (d) Royalty Accounting
  14. Calls in arrear is shown in statement of affairs under :
    (a) List B
    (b) List C
    (c) List A
    (d) List D

Cost & Management  Accounting

  1. Which of the following costing methods usually compares the actual data with estimated data to arrive at a conclusion?
    (a) Batch costing method
    (b) Activity-based costing method
    (c) Job costing method
    (d) Standard cos.ting method
  2. The purchase price of a lock in Rs. 100 per unit, while the carrying cost comes to 5% and consumption of raw material is 24000 units p.a. Ordering cost is Rs.10 per order. What will be the EOQ (Economic Order Quantity)?
    (a) 310
    (b) 300
    (c) 250
    (d) 210
  3. In the short run, in order to survive the cut-throat competition, which among the following can be adopted as a last resort for survival?
    (a) Marginal Cost ≤ Sales
    (b) Total Cost = Sales
    (c) Marginal Cost > Sales
    (d) Total Cost < Sales
  4. What is the point of ‘No Profit No Loss’ termed as?
    (a) Contribution
    (b) Break Even
    (c) Margin of Safety
    (d) Angle of Incidence
  5. Find the odd one out with regard to application of costing principles?
    (a) Margin of Safety
    (b) Break Even Analysis
    (c) Cost Volume Profit Analysis
    (d) Variance Analysis for Materials
  6. Which of the following costing techniques is suitable for manufacturing biscuits of similar description for a biscuit company throughout the year?
    (a) Standard Costing
    (b) Contract Costing
    (c) Batch Costing
    (d) Process Costing
  7. Mr. Ambani wants a fully customised private Jet which must have a big dining lounge in it unlike other aircrafts. He offers the contract to Dell Dreamliner’s Pvt. Limited for manufacturing. Which costing principle shall the company use to manufacture the said aircraft for Mr. Ambani?
    (a) Job Costing
    (b) Batch Costing
    (c) Standard Costing
    (d) Process Costing
  8. When the completion stage of a contract is more than half, the profit to be credited to Profit and Loss account will be equal to:
    (a) 100% of Notional Profit × (Cash Received/Work Certified)
    (b) 2/3 × Notional Profit × (Cash Received/Work Certified)
    (c) 1/3 × Notional Profit × (Cash Received/Work Certified)
    (d) 1/2 × Notional Profit × (Cash Received/Work Certified)
  9. Generally, a/an———— in a contract provides that the contract price would be suitably enhanced on the happening of a specified contingency.
    (a) Escalation Clause
    (b) Contract Clause
    (c) Key-Man Clause
    (d) Ownership Clause
  10. Which of the following costing principles is based on comparison of actual and estimated cost?
    (a) Contract Costing
    (b) Activity Based Costing
    (c) Standard Costing
    (d) Job Costing
  11. The aggregate of total Indirect Costs are termed as:
    (a) Cost of Production
    (b) Overhead Cost
    (c) Prime Cost
    (d) Works Cost
  12. Payment to a contractor is made on the basis of —–
    (a) Percentage of Notional Profit
    (b) Notional Profit
    (c) Certified Work
    (d) Contract Price
  13. The following are the expenditures for a contract of Rs.6,00,000 commenced in January 2017?
    Materials : Rs.1,20,000
    Wages : Rs.1,64,400
    Plant : Rs.20,000
    Business Charges : Rs.8,600
    Work Certified : 80%
    Cash Received (31.12.17): Rs.2,40,000
    Depreciation of plant : 10%
    Calculate the notional profit as per the contract costing principles.
    (a) Rs. 10,000
    (b) Rs. 25,000
    (c) Rs. 20,000
    (d) RS. 15,000
  14. Abnormal effectiveness or wastage valuation is done on the basis of:
    (a) Cost per unit of goods
    (b) Amount received from sale of normal wastage
    (c) Valuation of closing stock in each process
    (d) Cost of raw material purchased
  15. According to Halsey Premium Plan, time wage is guaranteed with a bonus of————wages for time sarved
    (a) 33.33%
    (b) 50.00%
    (c) 66.66%
    (d) 90.00%
  16. The formula (1/2 × Notional Profit × Cash Received/Work Certified)  is used in contract costing when :
    (a) The completion of contract is more than 75% but less than 90%
    (b) The completion of contract is more than 25% but less than 50%
    (c) The completion of contract is more than 50% but less than 75%
    (d) The completion of contract is less than 25%
  17. BOGEY standard in Cost Accounting is also known as :
    (a) Basic Waste Control standard
    (b) Attainable standard
    (c) Ideal standard
    (d) Abnormal loss standard
  18. —————–is equal to after tax operating profits of a firm less the cost of funds used to finance investments.
    (a) Fixed Cost
    (b) Gross Sales
    (c) Marginal Cost
    (d) Economic Value Added
  19. Which of the following is not an assumption of Economic Ordering Quantity (EOQ)?
    1. Anticipated usage of materials in units is not known.
    2. The quantity of material ordered is received immediately i.e. the lead time is zero.
    3. Ordering cost per order and carrying cost per unit are known and they are fixed.
    4. Cost per unit of the material is constant and is known as well.
  20. Following information has been given:
    Annual Usage – 8000 units
    Cost Per Unit – Rs 30
    Buying Cost – Rs. 15 per order
    Calculate the Economic Order Quantity.
    (a) 420
    (b) 450
    (c) 380
    (d) 400

Advance Accounting

  1. The basic difference between Traditional Accounting and Human Resource Accounting is :
    (a) Identifying and reporting investments made in employees
    (b) Method of valuation of stock in trade
    (c)  Basic principles of accounting
    (d) Method of revenue recognition
  2. Consider the following journal entry :
    Royalties A/c                                Dr.
    Shortworking A/c                        Dr.
    To Landlord’s A/c
    Find the correct situation of the usage of the above entry
    (a) When royalty payable is more than the minimum rent
    (b) When there is a normal payment of lease royalty
    (c) When there is a profit in lease
    (d) When royalty payable is less than the minimum rent
  3. ———- comprises a range of accounting models designed to correct problems arising from historical cost accounting in comparison to rise in the prices subsequently.
    (a) Branch and Departmental Accounting
    (b) Inventory Accounting
    (c) Inflation Accounting
    (d) Human Resource Accounting
  4. Which of the following software assists in accounting?
    (a) MS Access
    (b) Audacity
    (c) Corel Draw
    (d) Tally
  5. Which of the following reports is NOT a part of Management Information System?
    (a) Cash Flow Statements
    (b) Book of Original Entry
    (c) Master Budget Statements
    (d) Funds Flow Statement
  6. Which among the following is NOT a Database Management Software?
    (a) Oracle
    (b) Audacity Pro
    (c) IBM DB2
    (d) My SQL
  7. Which of the following will be the journal entry when notary charges are paid by a third party in connection with Bill of Exchange?
    (a) Third Party A/C                Dr.
    To Acceptor’s A/C
    (b) Bank A/C                            Dr.
    To Acceptor’s A/C
    (c) Acceptor’s A/C                 Dr.
    To Bank A/C
    (d) Drawer’s A/C                  Dr.
    To Bank A/C
  8. Which of the following item should NOT be entered in Receipts and Payment Account of a club formulated for social gathering?
    (a) Loss on sale of old furniture
    (b) Various payments made towards expenses incurred
    (c) Sale of old newspapers
    (d) Subscription received in advance

Financial Management

  1. Capital Budgeting decisions are primarily taken for:
    (a) Absolute short term purposes
    (b) Short term purposes
    (c) Medium term purposes
    (d) Long term purposes
  2. Which among the following is NOT a factor that determines capital structure of a company?
    (a) Debtor turnover ratio
    (b) Financial leverage
    (c) Legal framework
    (d) Cash Flow abilities
  3. Which among the following is a reason for Under Capitalisation?
    (a) High efficiency
    (b) Unduly high price paid for assets
    (c) Liberal dividend policy
    (d) When fair return is not realised on capital employed
  4. Which among the following may be an effect of Under Capitalisation?
    (a) Dividends may be paid even if no profits are made
    (b) Market value of shares may go up
    (c) Market value of share may drastically fall
    (d) Company may manipulate accounts to show profits in the event of loss
  5. Which among the following is primarily NOT a finance function?
    (a) Diversification decisions
    (b) Financing decisions
    (c) Dividend decisions
    (d) Investment decisions
  6. When the real valuation of assets is less than the amount of capital invested, such a situation is called as :
    (a) Capital rationing
    (b) Capital gearing
    (c) Under capitalisation
    (d) Over capitalisation
  7. Suppose that a company only pays dividends when it cannot profitably reinvest its earnings. What can such a dividend decision be categorised as?
    (a) Strict Dividend Decision
    (b) Liberal Dividend Decision
    (c) Active Dividend Decision
    (d) Residual Passive Dividend Decision
  8. ————-is the interest earned on a given deposit or a principal that has become a part of the principal at the end of a specified period.
    (a) Simple Interest
    (b) Time Value of Money
    (c) Capital
    (d) Compound Interest
  9. The annuity with an indefinite life which makes continuous annual payment is termed as :
    (a) Regular Annuity
    (b) Perpetuity
    (c) Depreciating Annuity
    (d) Continuous Annuity
  10. “A Rupee earned today is more valuable that earning the same rupee tomorrow.” Which of the following term in the language of Financial Management explains this theory?
    (a) Time Value of Money
    (b) Valuation Concept
    (c) Investment Concept
    (d) Compounding of Money
  11. A platform of an organised and regulated financial market where securities (bonds, shares, etc) are bought and sold at prices governed by forces of demand and supply and often regulated by a professional body is called as :
    (a) Money Market
    (b) Government Subsidiary Company
    (c) Holding Company
    (d) Private Limited Company
  12. “The use of borrowed fund in anticipation of higher return to the shareholders,” – This is a concept called as
    (a) Stakeholder Optimising
    (b) Reverse Trading
    (c) Trading on Equity
    (d) Debenture Trading
  13. The Over-the-Counter Exchange of India (OTCEI) has its headquarters in the city:
    (a) Mumbai
    (b) Hyderabad
    (c) Delhi
    (d) Kolkata
  14. Which of the following is primarily NOT a key activity performed by a Finance Manager?
    (a) Making Retrenchment Strategies
    (b) Making Investment Decisions
    (c) Performing Financial Planning
    (d) Doing Financial Analysis
  15. Which of the following theories has NO direct bearing on Capital Structure?
    (a) Net Income Approach
    (b) Net Operating Income Approach
    (c) Arbitrary Pricing Approach
    (d) Modigliani-Miller Approach
  16. The choice of investment proposals under financial companies in terms of a given size of capital expenditure budget is known as :
    (a) Capital Sponsoring
    (b) Capital Gearing
    (c) Capital Rationing
    (d) Capital Diluting
  17. ——————– is concerned with the design and delivery of financial products and advice to individual, businesses and governments.
    (a) Financial Management
    (b) Financial Leverage
    (c) Finance
    (d) Financial Services
  18. Which of the following is the primary differentiating factor between ADR and GDR, as a part of depository receipt?
    (a) Validity of Instruments
    (b) Type of Financial Product
    (c) Area of Operation
    (d) Negotiability
  19. The process of determining the present value of a future amount is typically called in finance language as :
    (a) Cannibalising
    (b) Valuation
    (c) Discounting
    (d) Compounding
  20. Which of the following is NOT a primary purpose for holding cash?
    (a) Transaction Motive
    (b) Precautionary Motive
    (c) Storage Motive
    (d) Speculative Motive
  21. Which of the following is primarily NOT responsible for change in the Working Capital?
    (a) Change in the level of sale
    (b) Change in the members of the Board of Directors
    (c) Change in the operating expenses
    (d) Changes in the technology
  22. Which of the following methods takes into consideration the time value of money?
    (a) Accounting Rate of Return Method
    (b) Pay Back Method
    (c) Accounting Rate of Return
    (d) Discounted Cash Flow Techniques
  23. The ability of a firm to use fixed financial charges to magnify the effects of changes in EBIT on the earnings per share is otherwise termed as:
    (a) Combined Leverage
    (b) Operating Leverage
    (c) Long Term Leverage
    (d) Financial Leverage
  24. The argument that current dividends are less risky as compared to future / distant dividends and that the shareholders prefer dividends over retained earnings is known as:
    (a) Interim Dividend Argument
    (b) Bird in Hand Argument
    (c) Apple in the Basket Argument
    (d) Fish in the Net Argument
  25. The different Rankings of the same projects as given by the NPV and IRR methods may take place. One of the following is NOT associated with it. Find out the same:
    (a) Unequal Expected Lives
    (b) Management Disparity
    (c) Size-Disparity Problem
    (d) Time-Disparity Problem
  26. Which of the following is a contract in which a bonding company agrees to reimburse a firm up to a stated amount for financial losses caused exclusively by dishonest acts of managers or other employees?
    (a) Zero Coupon Bond
    (b) Indemnity Bond
    (c) Fidelity Bond
    (d) Corporate Bond
  27. The NIFTY comprises stocks of Indian Companies belonging to ——–sectors in India.
    (a) 8
    (b) 15
    (c) 12
    (d) 5
  28. As per Profitability Index, a project will qualify for acceptance, If :
    (a) PI < 1
    (b) PI ≤ 0
    (c) PI > 0
    (d) PI > 1
  29. —————describes the relationship between the required return or cost of Equity Capital and the non-diversifiable risks of a firm measured by Beta Coefficient
    (a) Stock Market Operations
    (b) Systematic Risk Analysis
    (c) Capital Assets Pricing Model
    (d) Cost-Volume-Profit Analysis

Business Studies

  1. “The moral principle that governs a person’s behaviour or how an activity is conducted” best describes the term
    (a) Commerce
    (b) Trade
    (c) Business
    (d) Ethics
  2. Reliance Industries Ltd. which is listed on the BSE and NSE, is an example of a :
    (a) Government Company
    (b) Public Ltd. Company
    (c) Private Company
    (d) Public Sector Undertaking
  3. Which of the following is NOT correct with regard to a company registered in India as per Companies Act, 2013
    (a) Every Company have Perpetual Succession
    (b) Every company can sue and can be sued
    (c) Every company must possess Articles of Association
    (d) Every company should have a common seal
  4. The entity is created by a special law. Defining its objectives, powers and privileges while prescribing the form of management and its relationship with government departments are the feature of :
    (a) Government Companies
    (b) Departmental Undertakings
    (c) Multi-National Companies
    (d) Public Corporations
  5. Which of the following CANNOT be regarded as a business service?
    (a) Transportation and logistics
    (b) Insurance services
    (c) Donation given
    (d) Personal banking
  6. The term ‘SEZ’ stands for:
    (a) Social Ecological Zone
    (b) Social Economic Zone
    (c) Social Environmental Zone
    (d) Special Economic Zone
  7. The VIIIth Round of GATT (Uruguay Round) finally resulted in the conversion of GATT into———-
    (a) World Bank
    (b) International Monetary Fund
    (c) Would Trade Organization
    (d) International Court of Justice
  8. ——–, in reference to international trade, is the export by a country or company of a product at a price that is lower in the foreign market than the price charged in the domestic market.
    (a) Foreign Trade
    (b) EXIM
    (c) Dumping
    (d) TRIPS
  9. The General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT) as signed by 23 major countries including India came into force in the year:
    (a) 1935-1936
    (b) 1947-1948
    (c) 1990-1991
    (d) 1955-56
  10. International Finance Corporation, an affiliate of the World Bank, was established in the year:
    (a) 1960
    (b) 1956
    (c) 1972
    (d) 1985
  11. What is the full form of ‘UNCTAD, a body of the United Nations?
    (a) United Nations Conference on Trade and Development
    (b) United Nations Committee on Trips and Development
    (c) United Nations Consortium on Transport and Dodges
    (d) United Nations Conference on Tariffs and Development
  12. Where the headquarters of the World Trade Organisation (WTO) is located?
    (a) Washington D.C., USA
    (b) Paris, France
    (c) New York, USA
    (d) Geneva, Switzerland
  13. In an area in which business and trade laws are different from the rest of the country and are located within a country’s national borders. However, they are treated just like foreign territory for the purpose of trade and commerce.
    (a) SEZ
    (b) SHG
    (c) Trade Zone
    (d) Industrial Corridor
  14. Find the odd one out with regard to tariff and non-tariff barriers in foreign trade?
    (a) Consular Formalities
    (b) Licensing
    (c) Voluntary Export Restraints
    (d) Import Duties
  15. Which list does India belong in the UNCTAD Membership?
    (a) List C
    (b) List D
    (c) List A
    (d) List B
  16. United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD) is the principal organ of :
    (a) UN International Court of Justice
    (b) UN General Assembly
    (c) UN Social Council
    (d) UN Security Council
  17. —————– is an approach to Ethics that focuses on the rightness or wrongness of action themselves, as opposed to the rightness or wrongness of the consequences of those actions.
    (a) Pragmatic Ethics
    (b) Consequentialism Ethics
    (c) Deontological Ethics
    (d) Virtue Ethics
  18. Find the odd one out with regard to Export-Import business.
    (a) Letter of Credit
    (b) SEZs
    (c) Micro Finance
    (d) EXIM Bank
  19. UNCTAD was established by the United Nations in the year?
    1. 1958
    2. 1964
    3. 1950
    4. 1968
  20. Which of the following is NOT a contemporary impact of business service through technological advancement?
    (a) Mobile apps for banking and other services
    (b) Advertisements in print media
    (c) Emergence of paperless transactions
    (d) e-Retailing and doorstep delivery
  21. ———————is NOT a credit rating agency.
    (a) CARE
    (b) CRAII
    (c) ICRA
    (d) FIRCH
  22. The focal point of the Uruguay Round of GATT on agreement of TRIPS was:
    (a) Intellectual Property
    (b) Cross-Border Trading of Goods
    (c) Liberalisation
    (d) Tariffs on Trade
  23. The United Nations established the United Nations Commission on International Trade Law (UNCITRAL) in the year:
    (a) 1966
    (b) 1945
    (c) 1960
    (d) 1950
  24. Which among the following is the regulatory body for insurance business in India?
    (a) AMFI
    (b) SEBI
    (c) RBI
    (d) IRDA
  25. ————–is a quality which should NOT ethically be followed by a critical thinker while in the process or critical thinking
    (a) Open mindedness
    (b) Reservation in arriving at a conclusion
    (c) Contextual
    (d) Non-Experimental and judgmental
  26. …………………is a tool for evaluating how satisfactorily a corporate entity has discharged its social responsibilities
    (a) Corporate Audit
    (b) Social Audit
    (c) Corporate Social Responsibility
    (d) Management Audit
  27. Which among the following aims at promoting corporate fairness, transparency and accountability?
    (a) Corporate Governance
    (b) Corporate Netting
    (c) Lifting of Corporate Veil
    (d) Corporate Social Responsibility
  28. Considering an example in the textile industry, if a dyeing units takes over a spinning and a weaving unit, such an integration is called as:
    (a) Horizontal integration
    (b) Diagonal integration
    (c) Conglomerate integration
    (d) Vertical integration
  29. The term ‘LPG’ in a business environment stands for :
    (a) Liquefied Petroleum Gas
    (b) Liberalisation, Privatisation and Globalisation
    (c) Loss Per Gram
    (d) Localisation, Promotion and Geo-extrication
  30. Which of the following Acts has replaced the Monopolistic, Restrictive & Unfair Trade Practices (MRTP) Act?
    (a) Essential Commodities Act
    (b) Consumer Protection Act
    (c) Competition Act
    (d) Food Safety and standards Act
  31. The Consumer Protection Act was enacted in the year:
    (a) 1975
    (b) 1979
    (c) 1982
    (d) 1986
  32. Which of the following statements regarding National Commission is NOT true as per the Consumer Protection Act?
    1. The Commission consists of 8 members, out of which minimum 2 members are women.
    2. The Commission hears the appeals made against the decisions of the State Commission.
    3. The Commission hears the appeals or complaints where the value/compensation
    exceeds Rs.1 crore.
    4. The Chairman of the Commission must be a sitting or retired judge of the Supreme Court.
  33. As per the consumer protection act, who among the following is NOT regarded as a consumer?
    (a) Anyone who hires or avails any services
    (b) Anyone who obtains goods for resale
    (c) Anyone who uses/is benefited from  services without making any payment
    (d) Anyone who buys any goods or services
  34. According to Section 44 of the competition Law, the penalty for making false statements or omission to furnish material information by any party is:
    (a) Minimum penalty of Rs.50 lakh and Maximum penalty upto Rs.1 crore
    (b) Minimum penalty of Rs.25 lakh and Maximum penalty upto Rs.1 crore
    (c) Minimum penalty of Rs.5 lakh & maximum penalty upto Rs.50 lakh
    (d) Minimum penalty of Rs.10 lakh and Maximum penalty upto Rs.50 lakh
  35. Software that allows collective and collaborative working as a team from different geographical location on a real-time basis is otherwise called as
    (a) Cross platform mobile app
    (b) VOIP
    (c) Groupware
    (d) Peer-to-Peer software
  36. ———-is  the business practice of hiring a party outside a company to perform services and create goods, usually done as a cost cutting measure, that traditionally were being performed in-house by the company’s own employee and staff
    (a) Outperforming
    (b) External Searching
    (c) Outsourcing
    (d) Over Timing

Business Management & Human Resource Management

  1. Select the option which correctly arranges the following events in ascending order according to their occurences events:
    1. Management by Objective
    2. Scientific Management
    3. Hawthorne Studies
    4. Industrial Unrest
    (a) 2, 4,3,1
    (b) 4,2,3,1
    (c) 3,2,1,4
    (d) 1,3,4,2
  2. The ability of two or more units generating greater value by working together than they will be working  individually is typically called as:
    (a) Management by Exception
    (b) Management by Objectives
    (c) Strategy
    (d) Synergy
  3. Find the odd one out with regard to Performance Evaluation Technique.
    (a) Management by Objective
    (b) Confidential Reporting
    (c) Behavioral Anchored Rating Scale
    (d) 360 Degree Evaluation
  4. Who among the following propounded 14 basic principles of management?
    (a) Henry Fayol
    (b) David Ricardo
    (c) F.W. Taylor
    (d) Alfred Marshall
  5. What does the term ‘Esprit De Corps’, one of Henry Fayol’s 14 management principles, mean?
    (a) Proper Leadership
    (b) Adequate Knowledge
    (c) Individual Performance
    (d) Team Spirit
  6. What is the style of leadership called whereby the leader assumes all the power and loves to dictate the followers as all the decisions are centralised?
    (a) Autocratic Leadership
    (b) Paternalistic Leadership
    (c) Free-Reign Leadership
    (d) Democratic Leadership
  7. Who developed the Management Grid as a tool of Performance Evaluation?
    (a) Harold Koontz and Cyril O’ Donnel
    (b) Robert Blake and Jame Mouton
    (c) Alfred Marshall
    (d) Peter F. Drucker
  8. The study of organisational behavior conducted in the 1920s by Western Electric Company located at Chicago is popularly known as
    (a) Michigan Studies
    (b) Hawthorne Studies
    (c) California Studies
    (d) Detroit Studies
  9. Which of Henry Fayol’s 14 principles of management depicts the phrase “one head, one plan”?
    (a) Unity of Direction
    (b) Unity of Command
    (c) Order
    (d) Equity
  10. Who is considered as the ‘Father of Scientific Management’?
    (a) David Ricardo
    (b) F.W.Taylor
    (c) Alfred Marshall
    (d) Henry Fayol
  11. Prof. Elton Mayo can rightly be categorised as a:
    (a) Legendary Leader
    (b) Religious Guru
    (c) Physical Scientist
    (d) Behavioral Scientist
  12. Putting a right man in the right job according to his qualification and ability is called as:
    (a) Recruiting
    (b) Controlling
    (c) Staffing
    (d) Selecting
  13. Which of Henry Fayol’s 14 principles of management depicts the phrase “A place for everything and everything in its place”?
    (a) Order
    (b) Unity of Command
    (c) Equity
    (d) Unity of Direction
  14. The ‘Management by Objective’ concept was developed by:
    (a) Henry Ford
    (b) Harry Potter
    (c) Frederick W.Taylor
    (d) Peter F. Drucker
  15. In Line and Staff structure of an organisation, the authority lies with:
    (a) More in Line and Less with Staff Personnel
    (b) Line Personnel
    (c) Staff Personnel
    (d) Equally with Line and Staff Personnel
  16. ———— was propounded by Prof. William Ouchi.
    (a) Theory X
    (b) Theory Y
    (c) ERG Theory
    (d) Theory Z
  17. Management by Exception, a style of business management, typically talks about which of the following?
    (a) Targets should be achieved within a defined time limit
    (b) Management should be involved in day-to-day working without allowing any exceptions
    (c) Management should not involve themselves in routine things and must concentrate on strategies
    (d) Exceptional cases must not be included in management and be treated as special cases
  18. Who propounded the ‘Two-Factor Theory’ of Motivation?
    (a) Abraham Maslow
    (b) Clayton Alderfer
    (c) Henry Mintzberg
    (d) Frederick Herzberg
  19. —————–is a work group of employees who meet regularly to discuss their problems investigate causes, recommend solutions and take corrective actions. This is generally a small group of employees belonging to the same work area.
    (a) Line Organisation
    (b) Quality Circle
    (c) Committee Organisation
    (d) Staff Organisation
  20. Which one of the following may help in building an “Innovation Enabled Organisation”?
    (a) Strong formal orientation with adequate bureaucracy
    (b) Strictly adhering to targets at any cost
    (c) Following the principles of Management by Objectives (MBO)
    (d) Following effective cross-functional teams
  21. Which of the following is the highest level need as per Professor Abraham Maslow’s hierarchy of needs?
    (a)  Social Need
    (b) Physiological Need
    (c) Safety Need
    (d) Salf-Actualisation Need
  22. Impatient, achievement-oriented people are classified as:
    (a) Introvert Personality
    (b) Extrovert Personality
    (c) Type A Personality
    (d) Type B Personality
  23. Grapevine must be categorised under:
    (a) Style of Leadership
    (b) Communication
    (c) Organisational Structure
    (d) Human Resource Development
  24. The process of reaching out to the maximum number of possible candidates having potential to perform a job and encouraging them to apply for the same job is called:
    (a) Motivation
    (b) Placement
    (c) Recruitment
    (d) Selection
  25. Which of the following does NOT form a primary part of the general functional areas of Human Resource Management?
    (a) Measuring performance and developing employees’ potential
    (b) Determining and staffing for employment needs
    (c) Anticipating and coping with organisational change
    (d) Taking care of quality while procuring raw materials
  26. The process of mapping the current demand for manpower and thinking sure of the making sure of the availability of the right kind of manpower at the right time, and bridging the gap of current and future manpower requirements is typically the function of:
    (a) Human Resource Development
    (b) Human Resource Training
    (c) Human Resource Management
    (d) Human Resource Planning
  27. Which among the following is NOT an emerging challenge for an HR manager in the contemporary context
    (a) Globalisation
    (b) Management of various cultural issues of employees
    (c) Payroll management
    (d) Matching various employee expectations with a career path
  28. ISO, as a process of business standardisation, stands for :
    (a) Integrated Organization for Standardization
    (b) Indian Organization for Standardization
    (c) International Organization for Standardization
    (d) Inter-Global Organization for Standardization

Marketing Management

  1. Who among the following is closely associated with Marketing Management?
    (a) Alfred Marshall
    (b) Alfred Nobel
    (c) Philip Kotler
    (d) Mohammad Younis
  2. Which of the following is NOT a part of the scope of Marketing?
    (a) Distribution channel
    (b) After sales service issues
    (c) Pricing methods and policies
    (d) Recruiting people for marketing
  3. Which of the following authors belongs to the Modern Era of Marketing?
    (a) Tousley and Clark
    (b) E. J. McCarthy
    (c) Edward and David
    (d) Pyle
  4. Which of the following is the primary difference between the old and new concept of marketing?
    (a) Product Focus
    (b) Production
    (c) Consumer Satisfaction
    (d) Distribution and Sales
  5. ………………….. is NOT an elementary component in the BCG Matrix.
    (a) Elephant
    (b) Star
    (c) Dog
    (d) Cash Cow
  6. A strategic option that entails reduction or termination of any existing product or service along with the level of objective set below the past achievement can be termed as
    (a) Turn Around Strategy
    (b) Retrenchment Strategy
    (c) Diversification Strategy
    (d) Growth Strategy
  7. Which one of the following is NOT a component as per Porter’s Model in Strategic Management?
    (a) Place Leadership Strategy
    (b) Differentiation Strategy
    (c) Cost Leadership Strategy
    (d) Focused/Positioning Strategy
  8. If we draw a matrix of SWOT analysis, in which quadrant will the entry of other market players be placed?
    (a) Weakness
    (b) Opportunity
    (c) Strength
    (d) Threat
  9. A Balanced Score Card is:
    (a) A tool to balance current and capital liability
    (b) A method to evaluate financial performance of a firm
    (c) Essentially a balance sheet of financial matters
    (d) A tool for assessing strengths and weaknesses in a balanced way
  10. Which of the following is usually NOT a characteristic of a successful strategic alliance?
    (a) Confrontation
    (b) Balancing contributions
    (c) Goal compatibility
    (d) Synergy
  11. Which of the following companies has acquired Indian e-retail giant Flipkart?
    (a) Procter & Gamble
    (b) Starbucks
    (c) Walmart
    (d) Marks & Spencer
  12. Which of the following strategies allows a firm to excel over competitors by offering products or services at the least cost?
    (a) Promotional Leadership
    (b) Cost Leadership
    (c) Market Leadership
    (d) Place Leadership
  13. ————involves the examination and redesigned of a set of related work activities that are performed by employees to achieve business goals and workflows in an organisation
    (a) Strategic Management
    (b) Total Quality Management
    (c) Business Process Reengineering
    (d) Knowledge Management
  14. The goal of matching the knowledge, skills and abilities (KSA) that are central to perform a job, as determined by job analysis, with the prospective employee’s, knowledge, skills and abilities is called (technically in Management language) as :
    (a) Person-Job Fit
    (b) KSA Fit
    (c) Competency Mapping
    (d) Potential Appraisal
  15. ————- is defined as consistency or agreement of individual goals with company goals.
    (a) Goal Fixation
    (b) Goal Congruence
    (c) Goal Ambiguity
    (d) Goal Restructuring
  16. In management, when managers place their personal goals ahead of corporate goals, such a problem is called as :
    (a) Agency Problem
    (b) Mission Problem
    (c) Goal Congruence
    (d) Corporate Restructuring
  17. Which of the following is NOT an element for setting up of objective?
    (a) Starting point or the present position
    (b) Terminal point or the expected result
    (c) Initiation of Proper Control Mechanism
    (d) Specified time duration by which the objectives are to be achieved
  18. For promoting a beauty salon, which of the following marketing models would give the best results ?
    (a) Cloud Marketing
    (b) Seasonal Marketing
    (c) Personal Selling
    (d) Mass Selling
  19. Which of the following is NOT a part of the 4Ps of Marketing?
    (a) Place
    (b) Price
    (c) Projection
    (d) Product
  20. ————-is a type of marketing research method whereby information is collected from published and other written sources to analyse and interpret the outcome.
    (a) Observation Method
    (b) Desk Research
    (c) Field Investigation
    (d) Experimental Method
  21. ———— is the process of creating, sharing, using and managing the existing learning and information of an organization while facilitating a multi-disciplinary approach of achieving organisational objectives by making the best use of the learning coupled with thought process.
    (a) Personnel Management
    (b) Strategic Management
    (c) Knowledge Management
    (d) Logistics Management
  22. As a byproduct of Quality circle. ———–means improvement over an improvement, simply saying continuous improvement.
    (a) Kaizen
    (b) Funso
    (c) Hinshitshu
    (d) Total Quality Management

Pedagogy

  1. Special educators help teachers in :
    (a) Talking to students
    (b) Remediation
    (c) Instructing
    (d) Reporting
  2. Leela at 11 months looked for help from her mother to pick up a doll from the top of a table but at the age of two she pulled a chair and climbed on it to reach the doll. What development has taken place?
    Complete the sentence choosing the correct option.
    (a) Physical development
    (b) Emotional development
    (c) Cognitive and physical development
    (d) Language development
  3. Education of girls is seen as “Education for social cohesion rather than Social progress” in which of the following documents?
    (a) NPE 1986
    (b) NPERC 1990
    (c) NCFSE 2000
    (d) NCF 1975
  4. The class scheduled to go on an educational tour to a fort. What could be the best alternate plan the teacher can have for Ashish who uses crutches to walk.
    (a) Give him a holiday
    (b) Ask him to stay back in class and complete an assignment
    (c) Buddy system for mutual support
    (d) A movie show
  5. Ramesh secured 15th rank. Which type of test was this evaluation based on ?
    (a) Norm referenced
    (b) standardized
    (c) Criterion referencing
    (d) Diagnostic
  6. Concept formation is a result of :
    (a) Teaching
    (b) Drilling
    (c) Perceptions
    (d) Memorising
  7. Inclusive Education policy is an initiative to support the larger objective of ——-
    Choose the right option
    (a) Girl child education
    (b) Special needs education
    (c) Minority education
    (d) Education for all
  8. The objective of poems in languages is to learn :
    (a) Action
    (b) Aesthetics and varied expression
    (c) Singing
    (d) Rhythm
  9. A social science lesson takes responsibility of inculcating which of the following values?
    (a)  Appreciation of land, culture and heritage
    (b) Knowledge about location of resources
    (c) Understanding population trends
    (d) Awareness about technology
  10. Which of the following is the epistemological basis for scientific knowledge, according to pragmatists?
    (a)  Problem solving
    (b) Experiments
    (c) Opinions
    (d) Interpretations
  11. Technology aided learning can substitute a teacher effectively when we use:
    (a) Interactive e-lessons
    (b) Programmed learning
    (c) Power-Point presentations
    (d) Audio-visual aids
  12. What does the acronym HTML stand for ?
    (a) Hyper Text Multiple Language
    (b)  Hyper Transfer Marking Language
    (c) Hypertext marking Logic
    (d) Hypertext Markup Language
  13. Which element do debate and extempore speech help to develop?
    (a) Reading fluency
    (b) Writing skill
    (c) Emotional intelligence
    (d) Being articulate  in speech
  14. Constructivist development model by Vygotsky signifies:
    (a)  Learning by doing
    (b) Reading
    (c) Working individually
    (d) Discussing with peers
  15. Which of the following is a key mathematical skill?
    (a)  Illustrating
    (b) Observing
    (c) Drawing
    (d) Computing
  16. Science teachers can enhance their proficiency through reading by:
    (a) Discussion with colleagues
    (b) Updating with latest scientific developments
    (c) Substantiating lessons with latest scientific developments
    (d) Giving home assignments
  17. Taking feedback from children after the lessons is :
    (a) A Classroom Assessment Technique
    (b) Lesson planning
    (c) Reporting
    (d) Assessment
  18. Which quality of a test reflects its desired outcome?
    (a)  Reliability
    (b) Validity
    (c) Functionality
    (d) Feasibility
  19. Story telling comes from the art of :
    (a) Explaining
    (b) Narrating
    (c) Memory
    (d) Acting
  20. In machine language, the presence of an electric pulse followed by the absence of another electric pulse is represented as:
    (a) (01)
    (b) (1)
    (c) (10)
    (d) (0)